DAWIA Contracting Professional Practice Exam

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• What is the purpose of schedule-based incentives or penalties in DoD contracts?
• When does title for a completed product transfer to the Government, assuming all contract requirements are met?
• Which section covers Delivery or Performance?
• Why is a pass-through contract generally discouraged?
• FAR Part 14 governs which procurement method?
• What is a sole-source justification and when is it used?
• What is the preferred purchase method at or below the micro-purchase threshold?
• What is the purpose of a bid protest and where can it be filed?
• What is one key reason to define a delivery schedule and milestones in DoD contracts?
• Which FAR Part addresses improper business practices and personal conflicts of interest?
• Which procurement type is restricted to competition among eligible small businesses?
• Which statement accurately describes the data rights categories? (DoD contracts)
• What is the relationship of ITAR and EAR to DoD contracting?
• What is the purpose of a Source Selection Plan (SSP)?
• What does "best value" mean in DoD source selection and how does it differ from lowest price?
• Which FAR Part deals with Publicizing Contract Actions?
• Under FAR Part 31, which type of cost is generally unallowable for reimbursement by the government?
• How are modifications that change performance outcomes handled?
• PIID positions 1-6 identify which information?
• How does a government property clause affect contractor responsibilities?
• Which section covers Contract Administration Data?
• Under the Competition in Contracting Act (CICA), when is full and open competition generally required and what are common statutory exceptions?
• In the PIID, the ninth position identifies what?
• Name and briefly describe three common DoD contract types.
• In DoD contracting, what is the significance of unallowable costs?
• What is a common incentive mechanism involving sharing rules?
• What is a Subcontracting Plan and when must one be prepared?
• Is CPARS allowable for contracts of any value?
• Contracting officers must negotiate equitable adjustments from change orders within what period?
• Which section covers representations, certifications, and other statements of offerors/respondents?
• Which contract type provides a fixed price with adjustments for changes in economic conditions?
• Which closeout approach is used when the CO/KO negotiates the closeout settlement quickly?
• During discussions, what should the KO do?
• What is Government Furnished Property (GFP) and what responsibilities does it create?
• CPARS reporting requirement begins at $750K+ for which contract category?
• What is the difference between technical data and software rights in DoD contracting?
• What is the required timing for contracting officers to negotiate equitable adjustments caused by change orders?
• Which form carries the title 'Record of Weighted Guidelines Application'?
• Which contract type includes performance-based incentives such as sharing cost savings or acceleration bonuses?
• After receipt of proposals, which exchange types may occur with offerors?
• FAR Part 12 is used to acquire which type of items using streamlined procedures?
• What is “responsible source” in source selection, and how is it determined?
• In federal acquisitions, which part governs competition requirements?
• EPA, as used in contract terminology, stands for what?
• What are Cost Accounting Standards (CAS) and why do they matter in DoD contracting?
• What is the status described by debarment and suspension in procurement?
• For how long must agencies hold contract files in the office responsible for maintaining them?
• What is termination for convenience and what costs are recoverable?
• In Uniform Contract Format, which section covers Description, Specifications, Statement of Work?
• What is the CPARS threshold for services and IT contracts?
• What is the CPARS threshold for ship repair/overhaul contracts?
• When shall contracting officers negotiate equitable adjustments resulting from change orders?
• Which topic is forbidden to discuss during discussions?
• At the conclusion of negotiations, which document will the contracting officer complete?
• The DD 1155 form is used to place orders under indefinite-delivery contracts or if SF 1449 is not used.
• Which contract type commonly uses value-based performance criteria to determine incentive fee?
• Which activity is a core function of contract administration?
• What defines an immaterial change?
• What is the purpose of the Independent Government Cost Estimate (IGCE)?
• What is the primary purpose of a proposal analysis?
• SF 1442 applies to contracts expected to exceed which threshold?
• In fixed-price contracts, QA involves inspection and acceptance at what point?
• Which FAR Part covers Required Sources of Supplies and Services?
• For acquiring commercial items of supply, which contract types are allowed?
• Before negotiating a sole source contract, the contracting officer must complete which document?
• Which FAR Part covers Acquisition Planning?
• Which termination option allows the government to terminate for convenience or due to need without fault by the contractor?
• DD 254 is used to provide security classification guidance to contractors requiring access to information classified at what levels?
• The period available to negotiate equitable adjustments tied to change orders is defined as what?
• SF 1449 is used for which of the following?
• Negotiation of equitable adjustments related to change orders must occur within which window?
• Which statement describes when procurement integrity rules apply to communications during source selection?
• In termination for convenience, what costs are recoverable?
• Regarding change orders, by when should contracting officers negotiate equitable adjustments?
• What are progress payments and under what contract types are they most common?
• What constitutes an ethical concern in DoD contracting, and how is it addressed?
• In a source selection, what is the role of past performance and non-price factors?
• Which document would you create to capture the rationale for selecting a contract type?
• Which item is not a recognized post-proposal exchange type?
• Provisions and clauses should be incorporated into solicitations and contracts how?
• Which section covers standard contractual clauses?
• Which is the correct closeout timeframe for a firm-fixed-price contract after physical completion?
• What deadline governs the negotiation of equitable adjustments due to change orders?
• Which FAR Part addresses Administrative and Information Matters?
• Which item is typically included in Contract Administration Data within the Uniform Contract Format?
• In processing change orders, when should equitable adjustments be negotiated?
• Which issue is commonly grounds for filing a protest?
• Which procurement type is restricted to competition among eligible small businesses?
• What is SF 1409 used for?
• What is Earned Value Management (EVM) and when is it typically required on DoD contracts?
• DD 1597 is associated with which contract closeout item?
• A protest can be filed for which situation?
• Which statement about market research outcomes before issuing a solicitation is accurate?
• Which time frame applies to negotiating equitable adjustments arising from change orders?
• What are the key responsibilities of a contractor regarding Government Furnished Property (GFP)?
• The requirement to certify claims in good faith applies to claims at least as high as which amount?
• Which statement best describes the relationship of acceptable contract types for commercial items and IFB awards?
• Which section covers Inspection and Acceptance?
• What is an incentive contract and what are common incentive mechanisms?
• FP-EPA price adjustments: When triggered?
• What does the Procurement Integrity Act prohibit?
• Which FAR Part addresses Publicizing Contract Actions?
• In relation to change orders, within which timeframe are equitable adjustments to be negotiated?
• Which document records a business decision, such as selecting a specific contract type?
• What is the role of inspection and acceptance in DoD contracting?
• Who prepares a solicitation?
• Which description best characterizes Time-and-Materials contracts?
• What is the primary objective of acquisition planning in DoD contracting?
• In DoD contracts, what does foreground IP refer to?
• What is a Cost-Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract?
• Which statement best describes what procurement integrity rules prohibit during source selection?
• What is a flow-down clause and why is it important in prime contracts?
• Which section covers Supplies or Services & prices/costs?
• Which part contains standard contract clauses?
• In a PIID, position 9 identifies the type of contracting instrument written, depicted by a capital letter.
• What is the term for the formal award document after negotiations?
• The KTR must certify a claim is made in good faith over what threshold?
• Which statement best describes Simplified Acquisition Procedures (SAP)?
• How many FAR Parts are there in total?
• What is the CPARS threshold for AE contracts?
• In source selection, besides price, what factors are evaluated to determine responsible performance?
• In the context of the Contract Data Requirements List, how is the required response typically provided?
• Which form is used to amend any solicitation or modify any contract?
• For construction, alteration or repair solicitations and awards, which SF form is prescribed?
• After physical completion and payment, how soon should a SAP contract be closed?
• Which form is commonly used to solicit offers for commercial items?
• Which document describes the criteria used to award a contract?
• In contracting by negotiation, what approach is used to determine the best overall value for the government?
• In a DoD contract with an incentive structure, what is established and how are performance relative to targets rewarded or penalized?
• DD 254 is used to provide security classification guidance to contractors requiring access to information classified at what levels?
• Which section addresses Packaging and Marking?
• Which FAR Part governs termination of contracts?
• What is termination for default and what typically triggers it?
• SF 26 is used to award negotiated contracts in which signatures of both parties on a single document is appropriate.
• In PIID, which item indicates a clause applies pre- and post-award?
• How are ethics concerns addressed in DoD contracting?
• Ship repair/overhaul CPARS threshold is at least what value?
• What is a typical process for contract closeout in DoD contracting?
• Which form is typically used to award a contract with signatures on a single document?
• What is an Independent Government Cost Estimate (IGCE) and how is it used?
• Which document typically governs subcontracting obligations and may require flow-down of terms to subcontractors?
• What is price realism and when is it applied?
• What is the purpose of market research before issuing a solicitation?
• What is a trade-off evaluation and when is it used?
• Which program emphasizes geographic-based priority for contracting opportunities?
• Which FAR Part covers the Federal Acquisition Regulations System?
• For large prime contractors, what is a key requirement to ensure small business participation?
• DoD agency that typically handles administration for supply contracts is which?
• Which activity best reflects the goal of FAR Part 19 in federal procurement?
• Which solicitation type may require certified cost or pricing data?
• Which statement correctly describes ITAR/EAR compliance in DoD contracting?
• Which section covers Solicitation/Contract Form?
• A contract modification that expands the scope and increases deliverables is best described as?
• Which change in a contract modification is considered material?
• FAR Part 16 covers which topic?
• What is a key difference between an Invitation for Bid (IFB) and a Request for Proposal (RFP)?
• Which document must be prepared to justify a noncompetitive or sole-source procurement?
• Which exception to full and open competition is used when there is unusual and compelling urgency?
• Which form is used to issue an abstract of offers?
• With respect to law, EO, regs and all other applicable procedures, what must a KO ensure?
• Which modification would be considered immaterial?
• Which form of contract review verifies deliverables meet contract requirements before acceptance?
• PIID stands for?
• Equitable adjustments arising from change orders should be negotiated within which timeframe by contracting officers?
• Which section contains instructions, conditions and notices to offerors/respondents?
• The proper timing for negotiating equitable adjustments resulting from change orders is best described as:
• What is the required retention period for agency contract files in the office responsible for maintaining them?
• Which term is used for a rapid closeout process negotiated by the CO/KO?
• Which postaward activity is primarily addressed by FAR Part 42?
• How long must contractors retain contract files?
• What constitutes a contract modification, and what is the difference between unilateral and bilateral modifications?
• Which statement about Sealed Bidding is true?
• In cost-reimbursement contracts, which statement correctly describes unallowable costs?
• Which of the following correctly describes debriefing content?
• What is the CPARS threshold for construction contracts?
• What is a synonym for 'Discussions' in procurement negotiations?
• Which statement best describes data rights categories in DoD contracts?
• What document lists attachments to the contract or proposal?
• Which statement about SF 44 is true?
• What is the role of the contracting officer in DoD acquisitions?
• Which document records the results of price negotiations, including the negotiated price?
• DD 1594 is associated with which contract closeout document?
• Which statement best describes the objective of a proposal analysis?
• Which FAR Part addresses Competition Requirements?
• What is the primary purpose of FAR Part 10 Market Research in federal procurement?
• Which activity best supports determining the competition strategy and contract type before issuing a solicitation?
• Where can a bid protest be filed to challenge an award decision?
• Which statement best describes the difference between best value and lowest price?
• If total unsettled direct and indirect costs to be allocated to a contract are less than $2 million, these costs are considered what?
• In cost accounting, unallowable costs must be treated as...
• Under which type of offer does the KO have the most discretion for evaluation procedures?
• CPARS threshold for services and IT contracts begins at what value?
• What is the primary benefit of using commercial item procedures under FAR Part 12?
• In a negotiated procurement, what is the purpose of a price analysis?
• Which statement correctly describes the four major socio-economic programs affecting DoD contracting?
• For micro-purchase level procurement, which method is typically utilized?
• Besides payment, what can acceptance trigger in a DoD contract?
• What is a Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID)?
• When is a cost-reimbursement contract appropriate?
• What is an Economic Price Adjustment (EPA) clause?
• Who prepares an offer?
• DD 1594 is associated with which closeout document?
• For change orders, within what timeframe must contracting officers conduct negotiations on equitable adjustments?
• In PIID, what is the typical applicability of a Provision vs a Clause?
• SF 44 is used to solicit offers for which types of work?
• SF 1442 is used to solicit offers for which types of work?
• If a procurement procedure is inconsistent with the FAR, this condition is referred to as a deviation.
• At what level should controversies be resolved according to government policy?
• For change orders, the negotiation of equitable adjustments should be completed within?
• What are rights to background and foreground IP typically included in DoD contracts?
• Market research should be conducted in what manner?
• Which contract type generally places the most risk on the government due to uncertain costs?
• How do funding and appropriation rules affect DoD contracts?
• Differentiate firm-fixed-price (FFP) from fixed-price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA).
• Which statement is accurate about unlimited rights in DoD data rights?
• What standard should guide a contracting officer's authority to determine the application of rules, regulations, and policies on a specific contract?
• Change order negotiations on equitable adjustments are required to happen within which timeframe?
• What rights does a government debriefing provide to offerors after an award decision?
• Which statement best describes immaterial changes?
• What is the purpose of flow-down provisions specific to the DFARS in subcontracting?
• Which form is used to award either negotiated contracts or contracts utilizing sealed bidding?
• What is the primary purpose of standardized contract clauses in procurement documents?
• FAR Part 52 relates to which subject?
• Which term best describes the body of regulations governing federal acquisitions?
• What is an unfunded requirement, and how should it be handled?
• What is typically included in contract closeout documentation in the contracting system?
• Which contract types are allowed to be awarded via IFB?
• What is the CPARS threshold for ops support contracts?
• What is the typical government payment consideration under termination for convenience?
• Which FAR Part is associated with Acquisition Planning?
• Which statement about CPARS applicability is true?
• What is the difference between acceptance testing and acceptance of deliverables?
• How long should contracts that require settlement of rates be closed?
• Which objective aligns with procurement guidance to maximize competition?
• Is CPARS required for T4D contracts?
• Which term refers to contract requirements that are special or unique beyond standard terms?
• What risk is associated with pass-through contracts regarding oversight and cost controls?
• Which of the following is a valid basis to file a protest?
• Which statement best characterizes procurement integrity rules during source selection?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of market research before issuing a solicitation?
• In the PIID, which digits indicate the fiscal year?
• What is the purpose of the Contract Facilities Capital Cost of Money (DD 1861) form?
• Which statement accurately describes the contracting officer's authority to determine the application of rules, regulations, and policies on a contract?
• The Record of Weighted Guidelines Application is used to facilitate a structured approach to which type of analysis?
• In PIID, which item indicates a provision applies pre-award only?
• If a contract is terminated for default, what typically happens to the remaining work and compensation?
• What is the purpose of FAR Part 46 Quality Assurance?
• DoD agency that typically has admin for supply contracts delegated to?
• When an unfunded requirement is identified, what is necessary to avoid improper commitments?
• What is the purpose of SF 30?
• After physical completion, within how long should a firm-fixed-price (FFP) contract be closed?